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GVII-G500

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Air Conditioning System

Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

Electrical System

Fire Protection Systems

Flight Controls

Fuel System

Functional Checks

Hydraulic System

Ice and Rain Protection

Landing Gear and Brakes

Limitations

Oxygen System

Pneumatic System

Powerplant

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Air Conditioning System

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  • Q. When do the packs switch on and off during engine start?
    A. The left pack switches off when the engine start button is pressed, back on 10 seconds after the starter air valve closes. The right pack remains on.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 1-12]

  • Q. How do the packs handle main entrance door closing?
    A. When MED closing, both packs switch off, once closed left pack turns on, right pack 5 seconds later.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 1-12]

  • Q. What is the desired temperature range available in auto mode?
    A. 60 - 90°F
    Ref: [PAS, p. 1-13]

  • Q. What is the temperature adjustment range available to the passengers?
    A. +/- 6°F
    Ref: [PAS, p. 1-13]

  • Q. What is the temperature range using manual mode?
    A. 35 - 230°F duct air.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 1-13]

  • Q. What is the altitude limit for single pack operation?
    A. 48,000 feet
    Ref: [PAS, p. 1-2]

  • Q. What is the wing anti-ice restriction related to the air conditioning system?
    A. Wing anti-ice operations with a single bleed air source are limited to a single pack.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 1-21]

  • Q. What is the ECS duct temperature limit during manual zone temperature control?
    A. Below 200°F
    Ref: [PAS, p. 1-21]

  • Q. When must at least 1 ECS pack be operating?
    A. During ground operations above 98°F with APU or engines operating.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 1-21]

Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

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  • Q. What is the maximum guaranteed start altitude for the APU?
    A. 37,000'
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum operating altitude of the APU?
    A. 45,000'
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum altitude for an APU-assisted engine airstart?
    A. 30,000'
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum TAT for inflight operation (except in an emergency)?
    A. 47°C
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. At what temperature is takeoff with the APU operating prohibited?
    A. Above 45°C
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum EGT when starting the APU?
    A. 1050°C
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum running EGT for the APU?
    A. 732°C
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum rotor speed for the APU?
    A. 106%
    Ref: [PAS, p. 3-23]

  • Q. What is the APU starter cycle limit with powered by the airplane batteries?
    A. Maximum of three consecutive start attempts with a one hour cool down period before the next cycle.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. At what altitude is APU generator electrical load limited and what must be done?
    A. The generator can deliver 100% up to 35,000 feet, if it exceeds 50% you must descend to FL350 or below.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. When is the APU in "essential mode?"
    A. When started in flight or if started on the ground, when the aircraft transitions to weight off wheels.
    Ref: [FSI G500 MTM, ATA 49, pp. 41-42]

  • Q. If the APU is running in "essential mode," when will it transition to "non-essential" mode?
    A. 15 minutes after landing
    Ref: [FSI G500 MTM, ATA 49, pp. 41-42]

  • Q. What is the APU cool-down period during a normal APU shutdown?
    A. 60 seconds at 100% RPM shut down above 20,000 feet, or 1/2% per second for 60 seconds when at or below 20,000 feet.
    Ref: [FSI G500 MTM, ATA 49, p. 109]

  • Q. What is the electrical source for the APU starter?
    A. The primary source is the 28 VDC battery tie bus, but it can use any 28 VDC source.
    Ref: [FSI G500 MTM, ATA 49, p. 83-87]

Electrical System

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  • Q. What are the cabin, lavatory, and baggage compartment amperage limits of the 60Hz converter?
    A. Cabin outlets are rated at 3 amps each, all others are 15 amps each.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 4-4]

  • Q. When can the APU generator be used in flight?
    A. In the event of an IDG or engine failure.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 4-7]

  • Q. What are the in flight load limits on the APU generator?
    A. Up to 100% up to FL350, up to 78.5% to FL450.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 4-7]

  • Q. What is the output of the EBHA battery, how long will it last?
    A. 25 volts, 53 amp/hr, 30 minutes
    Ref: [PAS, p. 4-12]

  • Q. How long does it take to charge the Emergency Battery Packs, how long will they last?
    A. 1.5 hours to fully charge; last about 45 minutes.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 4-10]

  • Q. What do the Emergency Battery Packs power?
    A. Emergency lighting, SFDs, IRUs, VHF 1, TSCs #2 and #3, opening MED.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 4-10]

  • Q. What powers the ground service bus?
    A. Normally the Right Main DC bus. On the ground it is the Right Main Battery if external DC is not connected.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 4-6]

  • Q. When must the Main Ship Batteries be removed? Be disconnected?
    A. Removed under cold soak (-20°C) conditions; disconnected if aircraft shutdown 5 days or more.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 4-11]

  • Q. What does the RAT power?
    A. Left Essential TRU, Right Essential TRU, Emergency AC Bus (EBHA Charger, UPS Charger, Horizontal Stab Ch 1, and R Side windshield heat)
    Ref: [PAS, p. 4-7]

  • Q. What is the output of each TRU?
    A. 26 to 29 VDC, depending on loads between 250 and 20 amps.
    Ref: [MTM, ATA 24, p.54]

  • Q. What is minimum airspeed for effective RAT operation?
    A. 200 KCAS
    Ref: [AFM, §01-24-10]

Fire Protection Systems

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  • Q. For how long can the APU titanium box contain a fire?
    A. 15 minutes.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 5-4]

  • Q. What does pulling the fire handle do?
    A. Shuts off fuel from the hopper, electrics at the IDG, and hydraulics from the shutoff valve.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 5-15]

  • Q. What does rotating the fire handle do?
    A. Discharges the fire bottle into Zone 1.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 5-15]

  • Q. Which areas are monitored by 250°F thermal switches?
    A. Left aft floor, right aft floor, aft equipment, left pylon, right pylon.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 5-6]

  • Q. Which ares are monitored by 150°F thermal switches?
    A. LEER, REER, Forward under floor area, Forward baggage EER, Aft baggage EER.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 5-6]

Flight Controls

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  • Q. What is the range of motion of the Active Control Sidesticks?
    A. 10° left, right, forward, 15° aft.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 6-25]

  • Q. What is the maximum rudder deflection?
    A. 3.6° at high speeds, 25° at low speeds.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 6-29]

  • Q. When will the primary trim switches on the Active Control Sidesticks stop?
    A. If you trim for more than 3 seconds, if you attempt to trim below AOA Limiting, or if you attempt to trim for 187 knots or lower while you are flying above 250 knots.
    Ref: [PAS, pp. 6-26, 31]

  • Q. What inputs do the EHSAs use?
    A. The Electro-Hydraulic Servo Actuators receive data from the Remote Electronic Units (REUs) and use left or right hydraulic system pressure.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 6-5]

  • Q. When does the stabilizer move automatically?
    A. Takeoff pitch trim is set if FMS PERF and Takeoff Init done prior to initiating FCS test, during flight to counter any persistent elevator offset, and after landing (20 seconds after ground spoiler retraction and 10 seconds after speed drops below 42 knots).
    Ref: [PAS, p. 6-33]

  • Q. What happens to the spoilers and ailerons during a rejected takeoff or at touchdown and what triggers this?
    A. All spoiler panels deploy to 55° and all ailerons fully deploy trailing edge up. This occurs when both throttles are at idle and one of the following criteria are met: both main gear WOW= ground, One main gear WOW = ground and wheel spin > 47 knots, or both main wheels spin and radar alt < 10' and either flaps > 21° or GPWS Flap Inhibit selected.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 6-41]

  • Q. When will ground spoilers and ailerons autostow?
    A. Airspeed and wheel speed < 42 kts for 10 secs, or either throttle not at idle, or if 2 of following 3 occur: both MLG WOW in air mode, wheel speed < 47 kts, or RA > 10'
    Ref: [PAS, p. 6-41]

  • Q. At what speed is continued flight prohibited under normal control laws?
    A. At or below stick shaker activation speed.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-27-10]

  • Q. When is speed brake extension prohibited?
    A. With flaps 39 or with landing gear extended.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-27-10]

  • Q. Under what flight control laws is flight into known icing prohibited?
    A. In any flight control law mode other than normal.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-27-20]

Fuel System

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  • Q. What is the maximum fuel imbalance?
    A. 1,000 lbs for takeoff; 2,000 lbs in flight
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-80]

  • Q. What is the usable fuel capacity (pressure refueling)?
    A. 30,250 lbs (4,515 gallons)
    Ref: [AFM, §01-28-10]

  • Q. What is the minimum fuel tank temperature?
    A. -37°C with > 5,000 lbs total fuel; -30°C with < 5,000 lbs
    Ref: [AFM, §01-28-30]

  • Q. When does the Heated Fuel Return System auto on? auto off?
    A. Auto on when tank temperature ≤ 0°C, auto off when tank temperature > 10*C
    Ref: [PAS, p. 7-20]

  • Q. What is a good range of pressure from the fuel truck?
    A. Between 35 and 55 psi.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 7-8]

  • Q. At what altitudes will the engines suction feed?
    A. At or below 20,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §02-08-60]

  • Q. When will you get a "L-R Fuel Level Low" CAS message?
    A. If the fuel level in the respective hopper falls below 650 lbs.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 7-14 to 7-19]

Functional Checks

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  • Q. Summarize the Airplane Power-up Flow.
    A. Arm emergency power, check emergency lights, 2 sfd, 2 tsc; main batteries and FCS batteries on, check 23V UPS, 24 V EBHA, 2 OHPTS, 2 DU, 5 TSCs, 3 green gear lights; do fire test; APU Master ON, check electrical panel, bleed air panel, start APU, cabin galley masters on, emergency power arm.
    Ref: [AFM, §02-02-10]

  • Q. Summarize the Fire Test.
    A. Press and hold FIRE TEST on APU OHPTS page, count 1 APU FIRE light, 2 Master Caution lights, 4 CAS, 2 fire handle lights, 2 fuel control lights.
    Ref: [AOM, §01-01-80]

  • Q. Summarize the Master Test.
    A. Select Master Test, check annunciator lights, check pax oxygen light, 4 red CAS, 5 amber CAS, plus Bax Smoke cyan CAS, deselect Master Test.
    Ref: [AOM, §01-01-120]

  • Q. Summarize the FCS Trim Checks.
    A. Left seat pilot moves stick trim switch aft then forward, verifies movement, presses AP DISC button, verifies trim stops. Moves both backup pitch switches, verifies movement. Moves single backup pitch trim switches, verifies no movement. Pilot moves aileron trim 3 seconds left (till tone), 3 seconds right (till tone). Pilot moves yaw trim left, then right until tone. Copilot repeats stick trim switches.
    Ref: [AOM, §01-01-70]

  • Q. Summarize the Flight Controls Check.
    A. Surfaces faired, speed brake extend, stick left/right, speed brake retract, stick left/right, stick release, stick full forward/aft, stick release, nosewheel steering off, rudder left/right, rudder release, surfaces faired.
    Ref: [AOM, §01-01-90]

Hydraulic System

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  • Q. What is the maximum left system hydraulic quantity as indicated on the synoptic page?
    A. 4.6 gallons
    Ref: [AFM, §29-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum right system hydraulic quantity as indicated on the synoptic page?
    A. 2.8 gallons
    Ref: [AFM, §29-10]

  • Q. What is the correct hydraulic system accumulator precharge?
    A. 1200 psi at 70°F
    Ref: [AFM, §29-10]

  • Q. When must you land following a hydraulic system failure?
    A. Land within 4 hours of a hydraulic system failure if the failure occurred within 2 hours of takeoff.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-29-20]

  • Q. Describe the engine drive hydraulic pump pressure and volume output.
    A. Constant pressure (3,000 psi) and variable volume (low at idle, higher at cruise).
    Ref: [PAS, p. 8-2]

  • Q. What components does the left system power?
    A. The left system powers the primary flight controls (elevators, ailerons, rudder) the midboard spoilers, as well as the left thrust reverser. The left system also performs a number of utility functions: Flaps, Gear, Brakes (Inboard), Nosewheel steering, Main Entrance Door.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 8-2]

  • Q. What components does the right system power?
    A. The right system powers the primary flight controls (elevators, ailerons, rudder) the inboard and outboard spoilers, as well as the right thrust reverser. The right system also powers the outboard brakes and drive the PTU motor.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 8-4]

  • Q. When will the PTU operate automatically?
    A. When armed on OHPTS → DCN will trigger operation immediately when left system pressure < 2400 psi, fluid available in left and right system > 0.36 gal, right system pressure > 2850 psi, and right system fluid not hot < 107°C.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 8-7]

Ice and Rain Protection

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  • Q. At what temperature and general conditions do icing conditions exist?
    A. When SAT or TAT is between 10° and -40°C and visible moisture in any form is present, including on ramps, taxiways, or runways..
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]

  • Q. When must wing and cowl anti-ice systems be used?
    A. When entry into icing conditions is imminent, or immediately upon detection.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]

  • Q. What must be done prior to takeoff with wing anti-ice required?
    A. If required for takeoff, WAI must be selected on at least 3 minutes prior to setting takeoff power and normal system operation must be verified prior to takeoff (wing temperature stabilized at 130°F +/- 10°F.)
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]

  • Q. What is the minimum speed for wing anti-ice on and flaps up?
    A. 200 KCAS
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]

  • Q. What are the restrictions when using wing anti-ice and a single bleed source?
    A. WAI operations with single bleed air system operating: WAI Auto mode prohibited, maximum altitude 32,000’, maximum airspeed → 0.85M, WAI activation and wing temp > 100°F required prior to entry into icing conditions.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]

  • Q. In what position does the wing anti-ice valve fail?
    A. It is spring-loaded closed.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 9-3]

  • Q. At what altitudes will automatic ice detection work?
    A. From 400' AGL to FL350.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 9-4 and 9-7]

  • Q. What is the target temperature for wing anti-ice duct air?
    A. WAI valves to maintain WAI duct exit temperature of approximately 130°F.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 9-4]

  • Q. What is the source of cowl anti-ice air?
    A. 4th stage bleed air.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 9-6]

  • Q. When does multifunction and TAT probe heat automatically come on?
    A. Multifunction at 60 knots, TAT at 100 knots.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 9-12]

  • Q. When does cabin window heat come on automatically?
    A. 60 knots.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 9-11]

Landing Gear and Brakes

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  • Q. What is the maximum altitude for extension of the landing gear or for flight with the gear extended?
    A. 20,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is VLE?
    A. 250 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is VLO?
    A. 225 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is maximum emergency landing gear extension speed?
    A. 175 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is maximum speed with the landing gear extended utilizing the alternate system?
    A. 225 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is the recommended tire pressure for all takeoff and landing weights?
    A. 182 psi (nose wheel tires), 223 psi (main wheel tires), as measured at lest 2 hours stationary.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is the normal maximum available nose wheel steering available from the tiller?
    A. 82°.
    Ref: [PAS, p.10-11]

  • Q. When is autobrake RTO activated and how much authority is it given?
    A. Activate at 60 knots, ramps up brake pressure over 1 second to 600 psi, once over 80 ramps up to full anti-skid braking.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 10-27]

  • Q. What are the three levels of autobrake deceleration and how long does it take to ramp up?
    A. Low is 7 ft/sec2, medium is 20 ft/sec2, high is full anti-skid limit provided the NLG WOW, it takes 3 seconds to ramp up.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 10-27]

  • Q. What will cause the autobrakes to disengage?
    A. Selected off, brake pedal deflection > 25% for 1 second, brake pedal deflection > 25% then < 8%, brake pressure exceeds autobrake pressure, or throttles advanced above idle.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 10-27]

  • Q. At what brake pedal deflection is hydraulic pressure allowed to reach the brake assemblies?
    A. 8%.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 10-23]

  • Q. When will the landing gear warning horn be activated?
    A. Flaps > 22° and any gear not down and locked, OR flaps < 22° and < 345 ' AGL and throttles near idle and any gear not down and locked, OR CWOW is not in the AIR mode and gear handle selected up.'
    Ref: [PAS, p. 10-20]

Limitations

Some of these questions seem silly but are oral questions for your type ride.

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Production Aircraft Systems Manual

  • Q. What is the wing span?
    A. 87 ft 1 in.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 2-21]

  • Q. What is the length of the aircraft?
    A. 91 ft 2 in.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 2-21]

  • Q. What is the tail height of the aircraft?
    A. 25 ft 6 in.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 2-21]

  • Q. What is the minimum taxi turn radius for a 180° using the tiller?
    A. 60 ft.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 2-22]

  • Q. What is the minimum taxi turn radius for a 180° using the rudder pedals only?
    A. 125 ft.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 2-22]

Airplane Flight Manual

  • Q. What are the maximum number of passengers?
    A. 19.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-01-20]

  • Q. When is a runway considered wet?
    A. More than 25% of the reported length and width used covered by any visible dampness that is 1/8" or less in depth.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]

  • Q. When is a runway considered contaminated?
    A. More than 25% of the reported length and width used covered by any frost, ice, snow, slush that is greater than 1/8" in depth.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum runway slope for takeoff and landing?
    A. +/- 2%.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff or landing?
    A. 10 knots.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum crosswind component for landing when operating in any flight control law other than normal?
    A. 10 knots.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum tailwind component for landing with flaps 10° or less?
    A. 0 knots.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]

  • Q. What is the takeoff crosswind limit?
    A. 30 knots.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-02-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum approved airport pressure altitude for takeoff or landing?
    A. 15,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-02-20]

  • Q. Below what ambient temperature is engine start prohibited?
    A. -20°C.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-20]

  • Q. What is the maximum operating altitude?
    A. 51,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is the maximum operating altitude with a single air conditioning pack operating?
    A. 48,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is the maximum operating altitude with the interior baggage compartment door open?
    A. 40,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is the maximum operating altitude with a jammed rudder, rudder failure, or yaw damper failure?
    A. 35,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is the maximum operating altitude for extension or flight with flaps 10 or 20°?
    A. 25,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is the maximum operating altitude for extension/flight with the landing gear extended?
    A. 20,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is the maximum operating altitude for extension/flight with flaps 39°?
    A. 20,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-30]

  • Q. What is the Minimum Control Speed Air (VMCA) for flaps 10° and flaps 20°?
    A. 120 KCAS (flaps 10°), 112 KCAS (flaps 20°).
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is Minimum Control Speed Air Landing (VMCL)?
    A. 109 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is Minimum Control Speed Ground (VMCG)?
    A. 111 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is Maneuvering Speed (VA)?
    A. 206 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What are the maximum flaps extended speeds (VFE)?
    A. 250 KCAS (flaps 10°), 220 KCAS (flaps 20°), and 180 KCAS (flaps 39°).
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the Maximum Landing Gear Extended speed (VLE)?
    A. 250 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the Maximum Landing Gear Operation speed (VLO)?
    A. 225 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the maximum emergency landing gear extension speed?
    A. 175 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the Maximum Operating Mach Number (MMO)?
    A. 0.925 Mach, above 35,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the Maximum Operating Velocity (VMO)?
    A. 340 KCAS
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the maximum airspeed with yaw damper failure?
    A. 285 KCAS / 0.90M
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the turbulence penetration speed at or above 10,000 feet?
    A. 270 KCAS/ 0.85M, whichever is less
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the turbulence penetration speed below 10,000 feet?
    A. 240 KCAS
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the maximum tire groundspeed?
    A. 195 knots.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the maximum speed in any flight control law other than normal?
    A. 285 KCAS / 0.90 M.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the maximum speed with any primary flight control surface or spoiler panel failed?
    A. 285 KCAS / 0.90 M.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. When must the guidance panel be set to IAS mode?
    A. With the flaps or landing gear extended.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-40]

  • Q. What is the maximum flight load acceleration, flaps 0°?
    A. -1 to 2.5G.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-50]

  • Q. What is the maximum flight load acceleration, flaps 10° or flaps 20°?
    A. 0 to 2.0G.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-50]

  • Q. What is the maximum flight load acceleration, flaps 39°?
    A. 0 to 2.0G below maximum landing weight, 0 to 1.5G above maximum landing weight.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-50]

  • Q. What is the maximum zero fuel weight?
    A. 52,100 lbs.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]

  • Q. What is the maximum ramp weight?
    A. 80,000 lbs.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]

  • Q. What is the maximum takeoff weight?
    A. 79,600 lbs.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]

  • Q. What is the maximum landing weight?
    A. 64,350 lbs.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]

  • Q. What is the minimum flight weight?
    A. 48,300 lbs.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]

  • Q. What is the maximum baggage compartment weight?
    A. 2,250 lbs.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-03-60]

  • Q. What is the maximum fuel imbalance?
    A. 1,000 lbs. for takeoff, 2,000 lbs. inflight.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-0]

  • Q. What is the landing field elevation with the CPCS in semi mode, except in an emergency?
    A. Less than 10,000 feet MSL.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-21-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?
    A. 10.69 PSI in flight, 0.3 PSI for taxi, takeoff, and landing.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-21-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum duct temperature during manual zone control?
    A. 200°F.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-21-10]

  • Q. At what temperature must at least one ECS pack be operating during ground operations with APU or engines operating?
    A. Above 98°F.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-21-10]

  • Q. When is the use of autothrottles prohibited?
    A. During single engine approaches or any approaches with flaps 10° or flaps 0°.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-22-10]

  • Q. When is autopilot use prohibited?
    A. During a single-engine go-around.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-22-20]

  • Q. What is the minimum autopilot engage height?
    A. 200 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-22-20]

  • Q. What is the minimum autopilot disengage height from an ILS or LPV approach?
    A. 90 feet AGL (flaps 39°), 130 feet AGL (less than flaps 39°).
    Ref: [AFM, §01-22-20]

  • Q. What is the minimum autopilot disengage height for other than an ILS or LPV approach?
    A. 200 feet AGL.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-22-20]

  • Q. What is the maximum demonstrated altitude loss for a coupled go-around?
    A. 50 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-22-20]

  • Q. What is minimum airspeed for effective RAT operation?
    A. 200 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-24-10]

  • Q. what is the TRU load limit for ground operations?
    A. 80% for all but the Auxiliary TRU which is milted to 40%.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-24-20]

  • Q. When is speed brake extension prohibited?
    A. with flaps 39° or landing gear extended.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-27-10]

  • Q. what is the usable fuel capacity when pressure refueling?
    A. 30,250 lbs (4,515 gallons).
    Ref: [AFM, §01-28-10]

  • Q. What is the minimum allowed fuel tank temperature?
    A. -37°C with greater than 5,000 lbs total fuel, -30°C with less.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-28-30]

  • Q. What is the time limit after a hydraulic failure?
    A. Land within 4 hours if the failure took place within 2 hours of takeoff.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-29-20]

  • Q. At what temperature and general conditions do icing conditions exist?
    A. When SAT or TAT is between 10° and -40°C and visible moisture in any form is present, including on ramps, taxiways, or runways..
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]

  • Q. When must wing and cowl anti-ice systems be used?
    A. when entry into icing conditions is imminent, or immediately upon detection.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]

  • Q. If flight in icing conditions with flaps extended has occurred for more than 10 minutes during takeoff or approach and landing, do not retract flaps below 10 degrees until?
    A. It is verified that the flap leading edge is clear of ice by visual inspection of the flap on the ground after landing or visual inspection of the winglet leading edges while in flight.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-10]

  • Q. What is the minimum airspeed with wing anti-ice operating and the flaps up?
    A. 200 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-20]

  • Q. What are the restrictions for using wing anti-ice for takeoff?
    A. Must be selected at least 3 minutes prior to setting takeoff power, wing temperature stabilized at 130°F must be verified.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-20]

  • Q. What are the single bleed source wing anti-ice restrictions?
    A. Can only use one ECS pack, maximum altitude is 32,000 feet, automatic mode prohibited, wing temperature must be at least 100°F prior to entry into icing conditions.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-20]

  • Q. When can flaps or landing gear be extended in icing conditions?
    A. Takeoff, approach, and landing only.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-30-20]

  • Q. What is the minimum distance of refueling operations for use of the weather radar?
    A. 50 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-34-20]

  • Q. What is the minimum distance of ground personnel for use of the weather radar?
    A. 11 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-34-20]

  • Q. What is the maximum guaranteed APU start altitude?
    A. 37,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum operating altitude for the APU?
    A. 45,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. At what temperature is takeoff with the APU operating prohibited?
    A. Above 45°C.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. What is the APU starter cycle limit?
    A. Three consecutive start attempts with 1 minute cool down periods between attempts, followed by a 1 hour period.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. At what altitudes can the APU generator deliver 100% electrical power?
    A. Up to 35,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. When must the internal baggage door be closed?
    A. Above 40,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-52-10]

  • Q. What is the powerplant crosswind/tailwind limits for engine start?
    A. 40 / 25 knots.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]

  • Q. What is the maximum start TGT?
    A. 975°C
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum TGT and the time limit for takeoff?
    A. 965°C for 5 minutes.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum continuous TGT?
    A. 950°C
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  • Q. What is the takeoff thrust time limit with all engines operating?
    A. 5 minutes
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  • Q. What is the takeoff thrust time limit with one engine inoperative?
    A. 10 minutes
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  • Q. What the the powerplant crosswind/tailwind limits for high power (above 30% N1) ground operations?
    A. 25 / 20 knots.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]

  • Q. What the the powerplant crosswind/tailwind limits for taxi?
    A. 40 / 40 knots.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]

  • Q. What the the powerplant crosswind/tailwind limits for a normal takeoff?
    A. 30 / 10 knots.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]

  • Q. What is the air start envelope for an assisted (APU or crossbleed) start?
    A. 30,000 feet maximum altitude, VREF to VMO.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-30]

  • Q. What is the air start envelope for a windmill start?
    A. 16,500 feet maximum altitude, 250 KCAS to VMO.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-30]

  • Q. At what speed must reverse thrust be canceled?
    A. To reach reverse idle by 60 KCAS.
    Ref: [AFM, §]

  • Q. When is the use of both thrust reversers prohibited?
    A. Below 10 KGS [knots ground speed].
    Ref: [AFM, §01-78-10]

  • Q. What is a "normal" powerplant start cycle?
    A. Three start attempts of up to 3 minutes with 15 seconds between attempts, followed by a 10 minute cooling period.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-80-10]

  • Q. What is an "extended" powerplant start cycle?
    A. One start attempt of 5 minutes followed by a 10 minute cooling period if the attempt exceeded 3 minutes.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-80-10]

  • Q. When is the use of caged FPV prohibited?
    A. Above 1500 ft AAL.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-34-70]

  • Q. For what airports should Terrain Inhibit be selected ON, and when?
    A. Within 15 nm of landing at airports not in the EGPWS database.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-34-80]

  • Q. When is the use of VORAP mode prohibited?
    A. When VOR station overflight is required during any portion of the intermediate or final approach segments, excluding the missed approach point.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-34-150]

  • Q. When can SFD declutter mode be used?
    A. It is prohibited.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-34-170]

  • Q. Is the use of external DC allowed to start the APU?
    A. No.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-49-10]

  • Q. What is the time limit for engine operation below zero G?
    A. 7 seconds.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?
    A. 33 knots
    Ref: [AFM, §05-01-10, ¶4.]

  • Q. What are the crosswind limits?
    A. 10 knots (any degraded flight control law), 25 knots (high power ground ops), 30 knots (takeoff limit), 33 knots (max demonstrated for takeoff and landing), 40 knots (engine start)
    Ref: [AFM, §05]

  • Q. What are the APU altitudes?
    A. 35,000' (100% electrical power), 37,000' (guaranteed start), 45,000' (max operating)
    Ref: [AFM, §05]

  • Q. What are the minimum control speeds?
    A. 109 (MCL), 111 (MCG), 112 (MCA F20), 120 (MCA F10)
    Ref: [AFM, §05]

  • Things FlightSafety wants you to know (for some reason that escapes me)

  • Q. What is the airplane's initial cruising altitude at Max Weight?
    A. FL430
    Ref: [FSI, ?]

Oxygen System

The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: G500 Oxygen System Flashcards

If you want to put together your own set of paper cards, here are some questions and answers to get you started.

You can get more about this topic here: G500 Oxygen System.

  • Q. What is the intent of passenger oxygen masks?
    A. For use during an emergency descent to an altitude not requiring supplemental oxygen.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-35-20]

  • Q. Above what altitude are passenger oxygen masks unable to provide sufficient oxygen for prolonged operation?
    A. Above 34,000 feet cabin altitude.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-35-20]

  • Q. Above what altitude is prolonged operation with passengers on board not recommended?
    A. Above 25,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-35-20]

  • Q. When must crew masks be in the quick donning position? How quickly must they be donned?
    A. Above Flight Level 250, crew masks must be in the quick-donning position which allows donning within 5 seconds.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-35-20]

  • Q. What is the maximum approved altitude for use of crew and passenger oxygen masks?
    A. Crew and passenger oxygen masks are not approved for use at greater than 40,000 feet cabin altitude.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-35-20]

  • Q. What is normal oxygen bottle pressure?
    A. 1800 psi.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 12-3]

Pneumatic System

The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: G500

If you want to put together your own set of paper cards, here are some questions and answers to get you started.

You can get more about this topic here: G500 Pneumatic System.

  • Q. What are the restrictions for takeoff with a single bleed air source?
    A. Takeoff with a single bleed air source requires isolation valve closed until 1500 feet AGL or until clear of takeoff obstacles (whichever is higher).
    Ref: [AFM, §01-36-10]

  • Q. What are the restrictions for wing anti-ice operations with a single bleed air source?
    A. Wing anti-ice operation with a single bleed air source is restricted to single ECS pack operations.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-36-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum altitude for wing anti-ice operations with a single bleed air source?
    A. 32,000 feet.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-36-10]

  • Q. What is the maximum airspeed for wing anti-ice operations with a single bleed air source?
    A. 0.85M.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-36-10]

  • Q. How is bleed temperature regulated for wing anti-ice operations?
    A. The 8th stage valve is controlled to maintain a maximum of 700°F at the pre-cooler inlet and the fan air valve to control the pre-cooler outlet to 500°F.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 13-4]

  • Q. How is bleed temperature regulated when wing anti-ice is not in use?
    A. The fan air valve is controlled to adjust pre-cooler outlet to 400°F.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 13-4]

  • Q. What controls the Manifold Pressure Regulating and Shutoff Valves? What does it do? How does the valve fail?
    A. Controlled by L/R ENG BLEED switches, regulates pressure to 44.5 psig minimum, spring-loaded-closed.
    Ref: [MTM, ATA 36, p. 15]

Powerplant

The Quizlet flashcards on this topic are available here: G500 Powerplant flashcards

If you want to put together your own set of paper cards, here are some questions and answers to get you started.

You can get more about this topic here: G500 Powerplant.

  1. Q. What is the maximum EGT and time limit for starting (ground or air)?
    A. 975°C (Momentary).
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  2. Q. What is the maximum EGT and time limit for takeoff?
    A. 965°C (Five minutes with two engines, ten minutes when single engine).
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  3. Q. What is the maximum EGT and time limit for Maximum Continuous Thrust?
    A. 950°C (no time limit, but intended for infrequent use).
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  4. Q. What is the maximum EGT and time limit for reverse thrust?
    A. 965°C (30 seconds).
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  5. Q. What are the acceleration (G) limits for the engine?
    A. Operation below zero G limited to 7 seconds.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  6. Q. What are the restrictions for operating in engine alternate control mode?
    A. Takeoff or operation in icing conditions is prohibited.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-10]

  7. Q. What are the wind limits for engine start?
    A. Crosswind: 40 kts, tailwind: 25 kts
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]

  8. Q. What are the wind limits for static high power (above 30% N1)?
    A. Crosswind: 25 kts, tailwind: 20 kts
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-20]

  9. Q. What is the airspeed and altitude envelope for an assisted start?
    A. VREF to VMO up to 30,000 ft.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-30]

  10. Q. What is the airspeed and altitude envelope for a windmilling start?
    A. 250 KCAS to VMO up to 16,500 ft.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-71-30]

  11. Q. What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff power?
    A. 9°C.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-73-10]

  12. Q. When must reverse thrust be canceled?
    A. So as to reach idle reverse by 60 kts.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-78-10]

  13. Q. When is the use of both reversers simultaneously prohibited?
    A. Below 10 knots ground speed.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-78-10]

  14. Q. What is the minimum oil temperature for ground start?
    A. -20°C.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-79-10]

  15. Q. What is the minimum oil temperature for takeoff?
    A. +10°C.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-79-10]

  16. Q. What are the normal engine starter duty limits?
    A. Three attempts of up to 3 minutes, with 15 seconds between start cycles, followed by 10 minutes cooling.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-80-10]

  17. Q. What are the extended starter duty limits?
    A. One attempt of up to 5 minutes, followed by a 10 minute cooling period.
    Ref: [AFM, §01-80-10]

  18. Q. When must engine oil quantity be checked?
    A. After shutdown of last flight of day or at internals not greater than 24 hours cumulative flight tine, 10 to 30 minutes following shutdown.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 14-7]

  19. Q. What is flight idle and when does it occur?
    A. Flight idle occurs when the gear is not down and locked and flaps are less than 39°, it can be between 40 and 47% N1.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 14-17]

  20. Q. How does wing anti-ice affect flight idle?
    A. Wing anti-ice idle is 47% N1 minimum when wing anti-ice is on and the temperature is below -5°C, the gear is down or flaps are 39°.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 14-17]

  21. Q. What is approach idle and when does it occur?
    A. Approach idle occurs when the gear is down and locked or flaps are 39°; it is typically 2 to 3% N1 higher than flight idle.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 14-17]

  22. Q. When does ground idle occur?
    A. Five seconds after WOW goes to ground mode.
    Ref: [PAS, p. 14-17]

References

Gulfstream GVII-G500 Airplane Flight Manual, Document Number GAC-AC-GVII-G500-OPS-0001, Jul 20, 2018

Gulfstream GVII-G500 Production Aircraft Systems, Revision 1, Oct 1, 2018

Revision: 20190603
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