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Study Guide

GVII-G500

If you are headed to GVII Initial and had a look at the study materials, you can be forgiven for feeling a little lost. It is a new airplane, after all. I felt the same way. But I've been through this more than a few times. (This was type rating number nine for me.) But the feeling of aimlessness continues during initial. They will tell you that "you have to get through the complexity to get to the simplicity." That method works. But I think there is a better way.


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Photo: Alice, Tweedledee, and Tweedledum

Click photo for a larger image

The FlightSafety International GVII Initial Course was quite good, but I often felt directionless in my efforts. (See: Introducing Eddie's New Jet.) I admitted my angst to several instructors and heard the same thing: "You have to get through the complexity to get to the simplicity." After three weeks of this I got my type rating and moved on. But looking back at the experience, I think there has to be a better way. let me give it a shot:

Study Strategy

Questions and Answers for the Written Exam

Questions and Answers for the Oral

Checkride Strategy

Study Strategy

This is a holistic airplane. What that means is everything is connected to everything else. You cannot study one system and then move on to the next system, then move on the normal procedures, etcetera. What you did for all those airplanes up to now will not work, at least not efficiently. When you go to initial they will teach you in a method that seems aimless but does eventually get you to where you need to be. You won't have an "ah ha!" moment, but you will realize at the end of the course that you have learned.

I think your learning will be broad enough to pass a check ride but not deep enough to really have mastered the airplane. I think a month of prestudy will get you spooled up pretty well so that you can really maximize your time in class. I'm not sure my method is the best way, but I do think it is a better way.

Week One: Appreciate the virtual switch, explore the OHPTS, start on those limitations

The "virtual circuit breaker" is really a "virtual switch" and is usually nothing more than a way to save weight and panel space. But if you really embrace what this does for you, it can completely change how the manufacturer designs a cockpit and the way you fly airplanes. Gulfstream has done just that with the GVII and that is why you cannot learn this airplane system by system. I think the best place to start is with a look at Circuit Breakers for a basic understanding about how traditional physical circuit breakers work and a look at how a solid state, or "virtual" circuit breaker is different. The key point to realize is that these solid state breakers also make excellent switches.

Traditional hardware switches and circuit breakers:

  • Advantages:

    • They maintain a fixed position in the cockpit or elsewhere in the airplane; once you learn where they are, you can easily find them.

  • Disadvantages:

    • They are prone to breaking with repeated use or age; when they break the switched item is no longer usable.

    • They take up panel space as well as space behind the panels for all the wires connecting them.

    • They add to their aircraft's weight, as do all the wires used to connect them.

    • They are only selectable by a human hand, other systems on the airplane cannot access them unless they are equipped with expensive, heavy, and space consuming solenoids.

Solid State "Virtual" switches and circuit breakers:

  • Advantages:

    • They do not break with physical use, wear and tear, or age.

    • They do not take any panel space or space behind the panels for connecting wires.

    • They save a considerable amount of weight.

    • They provide access to other aircraft systems; if another system wants to change the status of a "virtural" switch, it can do so with a digital or analog signal.

  • Disadvantages:

    • You may have to hunt around menus to find them.

As you can see, the pros of one are the cons of the other. The GVII uses solid state switches and circuit breakers for most functions. Exceptions include those items that are used before the various computers and screens have booted or those that must be accessed in the event the computers or screens will have become inaccessible.

Once you realize the magic that goes on behind all the cockpit glass, it becomes easier to understand the function of a lot of that glass. Much of your interface with various airplane systems will take place on three Over Head Panel Touch Screens (OHPTS). You should get familiar with them before you venture into the world of aircraft systems.

While you are doing all this, it is never too early to start the rote memorization of limitations. I have a set of Flashcards you might find useful.

Week Two: Learn a new CAS Philosophy, learn a few systems

You may have heard this is a "fly-by-wire" airplane and that is certainly true. But before you learn about that, it is more important to learn that this is a "fly-by-CAS" airplane because Gulfstream has reinvented the CAS. The idea behind the new CAS Philosophy is that all those solid state switches will simplify your normal and abnormal procedures. You need to grasp how this works before you go any further.

Depending on your level of Gulfstream experience, some of the GVII Systems may look familiar. You should still study them fairly closely, because no system has gone unchanged. I recommend the following order:

  1. Fuel System — This is a good system to start with because it has a lot of OHPTS switches that have simple results: on / off, or open / close. Once you understand this system, the others will become easier. Note to you with previous Gulfstream experience: while the components look the same, they are not. The fuel pumps and valves are all different, which means the limitations and procedures are different too.

  2. Electrical System — This system is just about automatic thanks mostly to those solid state switches. At first glance the synoptics look similar to those of the G450 and G550, but they have significant differences.

  3. Landing Gear and Brakes System — The landing gear and the gear doors are all computer controlled, greatly reducing the number of hydraulic lines, valves, and associated parts. The brakes also represent a departure from previous Gulfstreams, not only because we now have autobrakes but the inboards and outboards have been split up and the accumulators are pressurized a bit differently.

  4. Pneumatic System — Gulfstream long ago figured out how to get more air out of two stages of the engine compressor and the change to Pratt & Whitney engines means you will never be short of pneumatics.

  5. Air Conditioning — The air conditioning system is a lot like the GV and later.

  6. Pressurization System — The maximum differential is higher so the cabin altitudes are significantly lower.

  7. Auxiliary Power Unit — The APU is usable in flight.

  8. Powerplant — These Pratt & Whitney engines represent a significant change for Gulfstream, but the result is higher speeds and lower fuel consumption. System abnormal procedures are easier to deal with, but you now have two types of fires to consider. Air starts are significantly easier.

  9. Doors — The main entrance door is different and will require a new thought process for even the mundane task of opening it. The cabin doors will automatically open before landing.

  10. Fire Protection — Even the fire protection system has been simplified; fault detection is now automatic and continuous.

  11. Ice and Rain Protection System — The ice detectors are the same as with the GV and later, but the numbers are a bit different.

  12. Oxygen System — The oxygen system is simplified and the masks are more comfortable.

  13. Water and Waste Systems — The water system now has two tanks, the purge process is easier, and the waste system is a bit easier.

Don't worry if you can't get to them all, just plow through them in the order given. As time permits in the following weeks you can catch up. You might be tempted to skip ahead to the flight control system but don't. In the end this airplane flies basically like an airplane. We'll get into the flight control system in week four.

Week Three: Get comfortable with the TSC, try a few normal procedures

Most of your interaction with the airplane will be through the Touch Screen Controllers; this will cover everything from your conventional FMS, radio tuning, and even for things like dimming the lights of your displays. You can access all of these functions through menus, but there is an easier way.

Now is a great time to start looking at some Normal Procedures. I would concentrate on the following for now:

Week Four: All about flight controls

Even if you haven't completed all systems you started in week two, you need to devote the last week to Flight Controls. I think this system isn't as difficult as the study materials would lead you to believe. But here is an area where you have to digest two or three systems at once because they are so interrelated:

  • Flight Controls — My page begins with a primer and it may be best to read that, go on to hydraulics and the autopilot, and then get into the nitty gritty of the flight controls. Try not to worry about all those flight control laws and just focus on "normal mode" for now.

  • Hydraulic System — Half of the hydraulic system is very similar to what you might have seen on previous Gulfstreams (GV and later) until you get to the flight control system. Then you will see that a lot has been removed (no HOPS, for example) but an electrical-hydraulic backup on some of the flight controls has been added. You need to get comfortable with this as you get comfortable with the flight control system itself.

  • Autopilot — The autopilot and autothrottles are more closely linked and do more than previous Gulfstreams. The fact the airplane is fly-by-wire makes this possible.

  • Flight Control Laws — A flight control "law" is nothing more than software instructions and are better thought of as "modes." Once you understand how the airplane works in normal mode, it then helps to know what happens when you lose various sensors and computers, and how the dedgraded modes impact how you fly the airplane.

If time permits: Abnormals and some Q and A

I would place a priority on learning the lessons covered so far but if you have the time, you might look at a few Abnormal Procedures. Of course you do have a written and oral exam to get through, see the following. I recommend you download the Quizlet App so you can do this study at anytime on your phone.

Questions and Answers for the Written Exam

Would you like these in flashcard form? Here you go: Quizlet G500 Written Exam Flashcards.

  1. Q. Where can you find the definitions for landing urgency?
    A. AFM 00-20-60
    Ref: AFM, §00-20-60

  2. Q. What is the meaning of "land as soon as possible?"
    A. Land without delay where a safe approach and landing is assured.
    Ref: AFM, §00-20-60

  3. Q. What are the five types of CAS messages?
    A. Single system, umbrella, consequential alert, collector, and directive.
    Ref: AFM, §00-20-70

  4. Q. What's a consequential alert CAS message?
    A. One that shares a common cause with an umbrella.
    Ref: AFM, §00-20-70

  5. Q. What does a gray switch indicate on an OHPTS?
    A. An unavailable selection.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-02-30

  6. Q. What is the meaning of an OHPTS switch with a cyan font?
    A. Indicates operating state that triggers a cyan CAS message.
    Ref: GVII-GER-0033 & 386

  7. Q. What is the meaning of an OHPTS switch with an amber font?
    A. Indicates operating state that triggers an amber CAS message or reflects an abnormal inflight condition.
    Ref: GVII-GER-0033 & 386

  8. Q. What controls automatic functions on the aircraft?
    A. The Data Concentration Network and the Secondary Power Distribution System.
    Ref: GAC GVII DCN ppt Feb 2016

  9. Q. What dampens main entry door during opening?
    A. A hydraulic damper with a self-contained, recirculating supply of hydraulic oil.
    Ref: PAS, p.2-31

  10. Q. What dampens main entry door during opening?
    A. A hydraulic damper with a self-contained, recirculating supply of hydraulic oil.
    Ref: PAS, p.2-31

  11. Q. What is normal bleed pressure?
    A. 14 to 52 psi. (14 normal, 24 low power ground ops or descent 35 single pack ops)
    Ref: PAS, p.13-3

  12. Q. What are the deceleration rates associated with each setting of the autobrakes?
    A. Low is 7 ft/sec2, Medium is 10 ft/sec2, High is the anti-skid limit.
    Ref: PAS, p.10-27

  13. Q. What happens when the outside door is selected to CLOSE?
    A. Provided the external battery switch is place ON first, the aux pump auto activates and the door closes
    Ref: PAS, p.2-31

  14. Q. When does the acoustic door open automatically?
    A. With flaps selected to 10° or the landing gear extended.
    Ref: GAC GVII DCN ppt Feb 2016

  15. Q. What is the AHTMS?
    A. The Aircraft Health and Trend Monitoring System, which captures data from the Crew Alerting System and the Central Maintenance Computer.
    Ref: PAS, p. 2-41

  16. Q. What are the primary escape routes?
    A. The MED and the four emergency exit windows.
    Ref: AFM, §04-19-30

  17. Q. What are the requirements for erasing the CVR?
    A. Must be on the ground with the MED open.
    Ref: PAS, p. 2-46

  18. Q. How long will the Main Ships Batteries last without a normal source of power?
    A. 10 minutes minimum after 2 APU start attempts.
    Ref: PAS, p. 4-11

  19. Q. What are the Modular Avionics Units (MAUs)?
    A. The main computers that control most avionics related applications.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-

  20. Q. What is the purpose of the Guidance Panel?
    A. It provides most of controls for operation of the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS).
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-02-40

  21. Q. What is NUC?
    A. Non-Uniformity Correction, a calibration process.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-04-70

  22. Q. When the the airport symbol normally appear on the HUD?
    A. 2,000' above the airport.
    Ref: Unsourced (someone is teaching this but no source confirmed)

  23. Q. When does the runway symbol replace the airport symbol?
    A. The runway symbol appears at 350' RA and the airport symbol disappears at 325' RA.
    Ref: Unsourced (someone is teaching this but no source confirmed)

  24. Q. What does the magenta dashed line extending from the nose of the aircraft to compass arc represent on the MAP display?
    A. The IRS track vector.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-04-00, p. 84

  25. Q. What color messages can be scrolled off the CAS display?
    A. Amber, blue, and white. Red can be scrolled to show other red messages.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-07-40

  26. Q. What happens when a red or amber CAS message becomes active?
    A. Message appears in inverse video, three chimes (red) or two chimes (amber), Red WARN or amber CAUTION lights.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-07-60

  27. Q. What happens when a blue or white CAS message becomes active?
    A. Message flashes for five seconds, one chime for blue message.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-07-60

  28. Q. When is navigation preview mode automatically selected (provided FMS is the selected navigation source and a short range navigation approach is selected in the FMS flight plan)?
    A. When the aircraft is within 75 nm flight plan distance and 40 nm direct distance from the destination airport.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-04-160, ¶2.A.(2)

  29. Q. What are two types of automatic CAS message filters?
    A. Takeoff and landing, and power-up.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-07-10

  30. Q. What tone is associated with autopilot disengagement?
    A. LO/HI/LO
    Ref: Unsourced (someone is teaching this but no source confirmed)

  31. Q. With AP engaged, what happens when PFD SRC switch is pressed?
    A. Lateral mode changes to ROL, vertical mode changes to FPA.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-21-40

  32. Q. What's the indication of a normal AT disengagement?
    A. AT1 or AT2 flashes amber for five seconds along with a LO/LO/LO triple tone.
    Ref: Unsourced (someone is teaching this but no source confirmed)

  33. Q. What are the long range sensors?
    A. Two GPSs and three IRUs.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-01-70

  34. Q. What are the short range sensors?
    A. VOR/DME and DME/DME.
    Ref: Unsourced (someone is teaching this but no source confirmed)

  35. Q. What is the default heading, attitude reference, and air data source for each SFF?
    A. Attitude / Heading Reference System (AHRS) for attitude, magnetometer for heading.
    A. Attitude / Heading Reference System (AHRS) for attitude, magnetometer for heading., ADS 4 for air data.
    Ref: Unsourced (someone is teaching this but no source confirmed)

  36. Q. What is color is turbulence displayed on the weather radar?
    A. Magenta.
    Ref: Unsourced (someone is teaching this but no source confirmed)

  37. Q. How is predicted windshear displayed?
    A. By a series of red and black bands in area of windshear followed by searchlights.
    Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry, §2B-29-00, p. 26

  38. Q. What is the windshear / CFIT vertical escape maneuver?
    A. AP/AT disconnect, increase pitch up to full aft stick (30° maximum), power levers full forward, once at a safe altitude retract gear and flaps.
    Ref: AFM, §3E-10-00

  39. Q. As you start your preflight, what is the preferred way of opening the Main Entrance Door?
    A. Push Emergency Entry panel to allow door to unlock using FWD E-Batt, thereby testing that E-Batt.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  40. Q. How do you open the Main Entry Door from the outside, normally?
    A. Use the Security/Ground Service panel, select battery to ON and the outside door switch to OPEN.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  41. Q. Can you fly with the Security/Ground Service panel door or the entrance push panel locked?
    A. No.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  42. Q. What is the purpose of the Door Safety Switch on the overhead panel?
    A. To prevent the door from being closed or stop if from closing if it is.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  43. Q. Do I have to have all 4 DUs to dispatch?
    A. No, Number 3 can be failed.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  44. Q. The aircraft is facing 360 and the wind is 270 @ 25 Are you allowed to start the engines?
    A. Yes, the limit is 40 knots cross, 25 knots tail.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  45. Q. Where can I find the crosswind component chart?
    A. AFM Performance section under "conversion charts".
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  46. Q. Where is the emergency evacuation checklist?
    A. AFM, there is an EVAC icon.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  47. Q. What are your escape routes?
    A. The main entrance door and the four overwing escape windows.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  48. Q. When does the acoustic door open automatically?
    A. Gear or Flaps 10°.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  49. Q. When and how do you check tire pressures?
    A. After stationary for at least 2 hours, on TSC Systems, Ground Service.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  50. Q. What are the recommended tire pressures?
    A. 182 psi (nose), 223 psi (main)
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  51. Q. What does a gray OHPTS switch indicate?
    A. An unavailable selection.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  52. Q. What does a cyan OHPTS switch indicate?
    A. An operating state that triggers a cyan CAS message.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  53. Q. What does a amber OHPTS switch indicate?
    A. An operating state that triggers an amber CAS message or reflects an abnormal in flight condition.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  54. Q. What controls automatic functions on the aircraft?
    A. DCN and SPSDS.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  55. Q. How were cabin systems designed?
    A. With redundancy so single-point failures don't result in loss of functionality.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  56. Q. What happens when the outside door switch is selected to CLOSE?
    A. Provided external battery switch is ON, aux pump operates and door closes, door latches, aux pump turns off.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  57. Q. What is the limitation associated with the main entry acoustic door?
    A. Must be open for taxi, takeoff, and landing.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  58. Q. Describe the seal on the external baggage door.
    A. It uses a passive seal to maintain pressurization.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  59. Q. What is the purpose of the AC/DC RESET switch?
    A. It resets the lockout and allows tripped contactors to close if the fault is cleared.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  60. Q. What are the minimum EBHA and UPS voltages?
    A. 24 and 23 VDC.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  61. Q. What do you check when arming emergency power during the aircraft power up?
    A. Both SFDs, TSC 2 and 3 on Backup Engine/Radio, and emergency lighting.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  62. Q. What is an ESC?
    A. An electrical system controller which performs system control functions.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  63. Q. How many MPTs are there?
    A. The are 14 Modular Power Tiles that perform power routing and circuit protection functions using SSPCs.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  64. Q. How many batteries are there and where are they located?
    A. 2 Main Ship Batteries (tail compartment), an EBHA (tail compartment), a UPS (REER), and two EBPs (one in LEER one in Fwd Aft BEER).
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  65. Q. How many generators do we have?
    A. Four: two IDG, one APU, one RAT.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  66. Q. What is the output of the APU generator?
    A. 40 kVA, 3-phase, 115 VAC
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  67. Q. What is the output of the RAT generator?
    A. 15 kVA, 3-phase, 115 VAC
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  68. Q. What is the APU maximum start EGT?
    A. 1050°C.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  69. Q. What is the purpose of the GCU?
    A. They work with the electrical system to provide quality power.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  70. Q. When would the main battery switches indicate ON?
    A. APU start, operating the Aux pump, or if battery switches are on and ESS DC buses have no other sources of power.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  71. Q. What does it mean when we say we have a split battery bus configuration?
    A. Left battery only for APU start, both for Aux pump.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  72. Q. How many REUs do we have?
    A. Eight Remote Electric Units.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  73. Q. What are the different flight control modes?
    A. Normal, Alternate, Direct, Backup.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  74. Q. What is the purpose of the BFCU?
    A. Provides "get home capability" if both FCCs fail.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  75. Q. How many FCCs do we have?
    A. Two.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  76. Q. How many FCC channels?
    A. Two per FCC.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  77. Q. What are our limitations in alternate flight control mode?
    A. No faster than 285 KCAS / 0.90M, no more than a 10 knot crosswind for landing, no icing allowed.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  78. Q. When would flight control mode change from normal to alternate?
    A. Due to a loss of multiple air data or internal sensors, or if FCCs lose communications with REUs that control HS MCE.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  79. Q. Which control modes can be reset to Normal?
    A. Only Alternate.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  80. Q. Can you turn TAT heat on when on the ground?
    A. Yes, using the switch on the OHPTS, it will heat for 1 minute.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  81. Q. When does TAT heat normally come on?
    A. At 100 kts.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  82. Q. What happens when Cabin Window Heat is selected on when on the ground?
    A. The switch turns green and it comes on for 10 minutes.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  83. Q. What happens with EVS window heat is selected on?
    A. The switch blooms cyan, the EVS graphic turns green, and EVS window heat operates for 5 minutes.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  84. Q. When do you check engine oil level?
    A. Between 10 and 30 minutes after shutdown.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  85. Q. Does APU oil have a historical value on FQI?
    A. No.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  86. Q. What is the difference between APU essential and non-essential mode?
    A. When in essential mode, some protective shutdowns are disabled to allow continued operation.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  87. Q. Which fire bottle can be discharged into the APU?
    A. The left.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  88. Q. What causes the Aux pump to operate automatically?
    A. Inflight: armed, left system < 1500 psi, fluid in system, fluid not hot, flap or gear positions do not match handles. Ground: armed, left system < 1500 psi, brake pedal depressed.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  89. Q. What causes the PTU to operate automatically?
    A. Armed, left system < 2400 psi, fluid in left system, right system fluid not hot.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  90. Q. What do you lose during a single hydraulic system failure?
    A. Onside thrust reverser and a spoiler pair (left: midboard, right: inboard)
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  91. Q. How does the Aux pump operate differently in the air when selected to ON?
    A. In flight it has a 2-minute time limit that can be reset by selecting OFF then ON.
    Ref: PAS, p. 8-6

  92. Q. At what level is negative pressure relief provided?
    A. At -0.25 psid.
    Ref: PAS, p. 8-6

  93. Q. What do blue wing anti-ice lines on the ECS/PRESS synoptic indicate?
    A. WAI temperature is less than 100°F.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  94. Q. What do green wing anti-ice lines on the ECS/PRESS synoptic indicate?
    A. WAI temperature is normal (100 to 180°F).
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  95. Q. What do amber wing anti-ice lines on the ECS/PRESS synoptic indicate?
    A. WAI temperature is less than 100°F for several minutes after it is selected ON, or exceeds 180°F..
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  96. Q. At what level is positive pressure relief provided?
    A. At 10.8 and 11.0 psid.
    Ref: PAS, p. 8-6

  97. Q. What kind of test is performed with PRESS TO TEST AND RESET control switch on the oxygen mask storage box?
    A. A leak check.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  98. Q. When would you select GPWS Flap Inhibit?
    A. For a landing with less than 22° flaps, in accordance with the checklist.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  99. Q. When the parking brake is set, what component assures pressure from the outboard accumulator is equal or slightly less than the pressure coming from the inboard accumulator?
    A. Repeater valve.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  100. Q. How is brake life determined during preflight?
    A. Wear pin indicators.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

Questions and Answers for the Oral

Would you like these in flashcard form? Here you go: Quizlet G500 Written Exam Flashcards.

  1. Q. What is the purpose of the AC/DC Reset switch?
    A. The FSI Q and A guide says "to produce quality power" but the MTM says it is to send "momentary discretes to the two BPCU protection latch." Each BPCU has a protection latch to protect the DC buses from TRU faults to lock out the TRU DC bus contactors. The PAS says this is also true of an AC Bus.
    Ref: MTM, ATA 24, p. 13 and PAS, p. 4-34.

  2. Q. What are the minimum EBHA and UPS battery voltages?
    A. 24 and 23 VDC.
    Ref: AFM, §02-02-10

  3. Q. What do you check when arming E Power during the cockpit preflight?
    A. Emergency lighting, both SFDs, and TSC 2 and 3.
    Ref: AFM, §02-02-10

  4. Q. What is an ESC?
    A. Electrical System Controllers receive TSC and other inputs via the DCN and provide commands to the Modular Power Tiles to switch loads on or off. They also provide status information relating to the SPDS.
    Ref: MTM, ATA 24, pp. 134-135

  5. Q. How many modular power tiles are there?
    A. 14.
    Ref: MTM, ATA 24, p. 136

  6. Q. What does a modular power tiles do?
    A. Hosts the Solid State Power Controllers (SSPC), acting as both switches and circuit breakers.
    Ref: MTM, ATA 24, p. 136

  7. Q. How many batteries are there and where are they located?
    A. 2 Main Ship Batteries (tail compartment), an EBHA (tail compartment), a UPS (REER), and two EBPs (one in LEER one in Fwd Aft BEER).
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  8. Q. How many generators do we have? Capacity?
    A. Four: two IDG (40 kVA), one APU (40 kVA), one RAT (15 kVA).
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  9. Q. What is the purpose of a GCU?
    A. Voltage regulation, control, system protection, and for the IDG's frequency regulation.
    Ref: MTM, ATA 24, p. 84

  10. Q. What is a break power transfer?
    A. A power interruption on the system distribution bus during normal operation.
    Ref: MTM, ATA 24, p. 130

  11. Q. What does the RAT power? What airspeed is required? How is it deployed?
    A. Powers LESS TRU, RESS TRU, EBHA Charger, UPS Charger, Emergency AC bus, Horizontal Stab Ch 1, L and R side windshield heat. Requires 200 knots. Deployed manually, is spring loaded.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  12. Q. How many REUs on the aircraft? What do they do?
    A. There are 8 Remote Electronics Units. They control actuators and the HSTS based on FCC commands and they report control surface positions.
    Ref: PAS, p. 6-4

  13. Q. What are the different flight control modes?
    A. Normal (the default mode), Alternate (if air data, inertial data, or communications between FCC and GSTS lost), Direct (if all 4 FCC channels become invalid), and Backup (All 4 FCCs unable to communicate).
    Ref: PAS, p. 6-11 to 6-18

  14. Q. Where is the BFCU and what is its purpose?
    A. Under the floor, used to "get home" if both FCCs fail. Powered by UPS and has its own set of RVDTs on sidesticks and rudder pedals.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  15. Q. What are our limitations in alternate flight control mode?
    A. No faster than 285 KCAS / 0.90M, no more than a 10 knot crosswind for landing, no icing allowed.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  16. Q. Can you turn TAT heat on when on the ground?
    A. Yes, using the switch on the OHPTS, it will heat for 10 minutes. The PAS says 1 minute.
    Ref: FSI Q and A and PAS, p. 9-12

  17. Q. When does TAT heat normally come on?
    A. At 100 kts.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  18. Q. Can you turn the cabin window heat on when on the ground?
    A. Yes, for 10 minutes.
    Ref: PAS, p. 9-11

  19. Q. When does EVS window heat come on?
    A. Airborne when ice detected (1 minute on, 7 off with gear handle up; 1 on 1 off with gear handle down). Manually forces it on for 5 minutes.
    Ref: PAS, p. 9-10

  20. Q. When do you check engine oil level?
    A. Between 10 and 30 minutes after shutdown.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  21. Q. What is the difference between APU essential and non-essential mode?
    A. When in essential mode, some protective shutdowns are disabled to allow continued operation.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  22. Q. What causes the Aux pump to operate automatically?
    A. Inflight: armed, left system < 1500 psi, fluid in system, fluid not hot, flap or gear positions do not match handles. Ground: armed, left system < 1500 psi, brake pedal depressed.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  23. Q. What causes the PTU to operate automatically?
    A. Armed, left system < 2400 psi, fluid in left system, right system fluid not hot.
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  24. Q. What do you lose during a single hydraulic system failure?
    A. Onside thrust reverser and a spoiler pair (left: midboard, right: inboard)
    Ref: FSI Q and A

  25. Q. How does the Aux pump operate differently in the air when selected to ON?
    A. In flight it has a 2-minute time limit that can be reset by selecting OFF then ON.
    Ref: PAS, p. 8-6

  26. Q. What is the maximum cabin differential?
    A. 10.69 psi (inflight), 0.3 psi (taxi, takeoff, landing).
    Ref: AFM, §01-21-10

  27. Q. What is the pressure relief cabin differential?
    A. 10.80 and 11.000 psi.
    Ref: MTM, ATA 21, p.100

  28. Q. When is the wing anti-ice white, cyan, green, or amber?
    A. White (not operating), cyan (wing temp < 100°F), green (wing temp between 100°F and 180°F), amber (wing temp < 100°F for 2 minutes auto or 4 minutes manual, or > 180°F).
    Ref: PAS, p. 9-26

  29. Q. How do you open the Main Entry door from outside the aircraft when starting your preflight during the first flight of the day?
    A. EMED Push panel – PUSH for Emergency Entry. The EMED door will electrically unlock and free fall open using the FWD E-Batt. This allows you to test that function as well as the FWD E-Batt.
    Ref: AFM, 02-01-10, Interior Preflight Inspection, Aircraft General Slide 30, 31, 32, 34 Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Aircraft General page 30, 31, 32, 33 of 50

  30. Q. How do you open the Main Entry door from outside the aircraft normally?
    A. Open the Security/Gnd Service door. Select the External Battery to ON Select the outside door switch to OPEN. The door will electrically unlock and free fall open. Opening the door and unfolding the stair section does not require hydraulic pressure; the door is electrically opened and the stairs will free-fall to the extended position using a closed-circuit hydraulic damper to control the extension rate.
    Ref: Ref: AFM, 02-01-10, Interior Preflight Inspection, Ref: Aircraft General Slide 30, 31 Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Aircraft General page 30, 31, 32 of 50

  31. Q. Can you fly with the Security / Ground Service panel door locked or the Entrance Entry Push Panel locked?
    A. No. The forward ground service panel access door and MED emergency open button must remain unlocked during all ground and flight operations to ensure accessibility to the Main Door switches, allowing ground crews the ability to open the MED during an emergency.
    Ref: AFM 01-52-10: Main Entry Door, iFlightDECK / PTH Aircraft General page 32, 49 of 50

  32. Q. When and how do you check the tire pressure?
    A. Aircraft static for at least 2 hours; TSC 1-4 - SYSTEMS—GROUND SERVICE, TIRE PRESSURE. TSC 5, PRESS Status, Tire Pressure AFM, Nose wheel tires: 182 psi, Main wheel tires: 223 psi.
    Ref: AFM 02-01-10

  33. Q. How many pins should you have in your hand when you finish the preflight?
    A. 8 (3 Gear pins, 4 Door pins, 1 Maint pin)
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Landing Gear and Brakes page 44 of 76

  34. Q. During landing you get an Amber Tiller Steering Fail CAS message. What type of rudder pedal authority would you expect to get?
    A. 40° from the tiller (instead of 82° from the tiller).
    Ref: PAS 10-11

  35. Q. What does a magenta landing gear indication mean?
    A. Gear in transit.
    Ref: PAS 10-45.

  36. Q. What does a amber landing gear indication mean?
    A. Gear fear failed to extend.
    Ref: PAS 10-45.

  37. Q. After opening the gear doors for preflight, what must be accomplished to put the airplane back into “ready for flight mode?”
    A. Close all the gear doors and select Normal on the LGCMP; otherwise, the plane will remain in MX mode and gear will not retract on departure.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Landing Gear and Brakes page 12 of 76

  38. Q. Is there a CAS message that the landing gear is not in the NORM mode.
    A. Yes, "LG Maintenance Mode"
    Ref: AFM, 3A-12-20

  39. Q. How can the gear warning horn be silenced if flap position is < 22° or > 22° and the gear is retracted?
    A. By either retracting the flaps or extending the landing gear. Tone Generator – MAU 1 and MAU 2 Inhibit TSC, Aural Inhibits. Selecting the gear silence button on TSC, Aural Inhibits, Ldg Gear Horn (This works until descending below 345 feet AGL)
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Landing Gear and Brakes page 35 of 76

  40. Q. While performing the Perf Takeoff, AC Cfg on TSC, you notice that the ENABLED legend under BTMS is amber. What does that mean?
    A. The FMS is not able to perform brake temperature monitoring computations.
    Ref: iFlightDECK, Perf Takeoff, AC Cfg

  41. Q. How can the pilot deactivate the autobrakes system on landing?
    A. By selecting the Autobrake to OFF on TSC 1-4, POF, Taxi, or Takeoff. Any one throttle advanced forward of the idle stop. Any one brake pedal is depressed greater than 25% and released to less than 8% for more than 0.03 seconds. Any one brake pedal is depressed to more than 25% for more than one second. Brake pressure commanded by any one brake pedal exceeds the brake pressure commanded by autobrakes (greater than 25%).
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Landing Gear and Brakes page 50 of 76

  42. Q. Where does the FADEC get its electrical power?
    A. From ESS DC until 35% and then from its own PMA. PAS says 52%.
    Ref: PAS 14-16

  43. Q. Name some conditions that stops the heated fuel return system to operate automatically?
    A. At high power setting, crossflow open, fire handle pulled, fuel selector OFF, low fuel pressure, HTFR AUTO switch OFF, fuel tank temperature above 10°C, low fuel quantity signal
    Ref: PAS 7-20.

  44. Q. When does the FADEC change channels during a ground start?
    A. Each time the fuel switch is selected to RUN.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Power Plant page 17 of 41

  45. Q. What’s the downside to the alternate control mode?
    A. You lose FADEC protection, you lose auto throttles, and you can’t dispatch in alternate control. Operation in icing conditions prohibited. Engine sync inoperative. Increased ground and flight idle
    Ref: AFM 03-05-10

  46. Q. When you select Fire Test switch on OHPTS what are you expecting to happen?
    A. 13 items: APU fire light, two master cautions, left and right fire handles, left and right fuel controls, 6 CAS.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Fire, page 11 of 21

  47. Q. On your preflight checks, how do you know you have full engine fire bottles?
    A. Absence of discharge bottle CAS messages.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Fire, page 14 of 21

  48. Q. If the APU senses a fire will it continue to operate?
    A. No; the APU will automatically shut down. However, you must discharge the fire bottle into APU enclosure by selecting FIRE EXT on Overhead Panel.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Fire, page 4 of 21

  49. Q. What’s the location of portable fire extinguishers?
    A. One Halon in the cockpit, and two Halon and one water in the cabin.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Fire, page 10 of 21

  50. Q. What happens when you pull the fire handle up?
    A. You send a signal to close the fuel shutoff valve, trips the associated GCU, and shuts off hydraulics in the tail compartment.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Fire, page 15 of 21

  51. Q. What electrical power source is required to detect an engine/APU Fire and discharge a fire bottle?
    A. Essential DC.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Fire, page 3 of 21

  52. Q. What is the purpose of the APU?
    A. Supply aircraft w/bleed air and AC power during ground ops. Inflight AC power or /and bleed air for engine start only.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH APU page 1 of 24

  53. Q. How does the APU shut down?
    A. Surface to 20,000 feet the APU sheds the air and electrical, slows down at 1/2 % per second to 70% then shuts down. Above 20,000 feet the APU sheds the APU Generator and Bleed Air and operates at 100% before shutting down.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH APU page 10 of 24

  54. Q. Can APU air be used inflight?
    A. Yes, for engine starts 30,000 feet and below.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH APU page 1 & 23 of 24

  55. Q. What power sources can be used for starting the APU?
    A. Essential power (Right Ships Batteries), AC external power cart. Use of an External DC power source to start the APU is prohibited
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Fuel page 14 of 45

  56. Q. What the indication that air inlet door has opened and APU is ready to start?
    A. Cyan “APU Ready” annunciation illuminates on IRS / APU / Batt page of OHPTS’s. ALSO ON THE HARD SWITCH.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH APU page 5 of 24

  57. Q. After selecting the APU Master ON the switch indicates amber FAULT. Can I clear this indication?
    A. Cycle MASTER and give it another try.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH APU page 8 of 24

  58. Q. Inflight you get an amber APU Essential CAS message. What does that indicate?
    A. It means it hasn’t shutdown for one of the malfunctions that would have caused shutdown on ground. Don’t shut it down if you really need it because a subsequent start may be inhibited. If you don’t need it, shut it down quickly by turning off the APU MASTER.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH APU page 4 of 24

  59. Q. How much fuel can be uploaded to the aircraft?
    A. 30,250 lbs.
    Ref: AFM Limitations, 01-28-10: Usable Fuel Capacities

  60. Q. What is the maximum amount of fuel when fueling over wing?
    A. 22,500 lbs.
    Ref: AFM Limitations, 01-28-10: Usable Fuel Capacities

  61. Q. What is the maximum imbalance while in-flight?
    A. 2,000 lbs
    Ref: AFM, 3A-06-230: Fuel Imbalance

  62. Q. When must the Fuel Boost Pumps be ON?
    A. Select operable fuel pumps ON for all phases of flight unless fuel balancing is in progress.
    Ref: AFM Limitations, 01-28-20: Fuel Pumps

  63. Q. What must you do to check the engine oil?
    A. CHECK Engine and APU OIL LEVEL 10 MINUTES to 30 minutes AFTER SHUTDOWN TO DETERMINE IF THE ENGINE NEEDS OIL SERVICE.
    Ref: AFM, 06-01-70, Pilot Oil Servicing Procedures

  64. Q. If you get a "L Hyd Pump Fail" CAS message, what will not work?
    A. Left Thrust Reverser and Mid Spoiler Panels/Speed Brakes.
    Ref: AFM 03-15-10

  65. Q. The Left Hydraulic pump failed 1 hour after takeoff. Is there anything you must do?
    A. Land at the nearest suitable airport no more than 4 hours after the failure.
    Ref: AFM, 01-29-20

  66. Q. Will the aux hydraulic pump retract the landing gear?
    A. Yes, but very slowly
    Ref: AFM, 03-15-10, Note

  67. Q. What is the lowest power source that will operate the Standby Flight Display?
    A. Emergency Batteries
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 10 of 74

  68. Q. If operating on the Emergency Batteries ONLY do you have Air Data Information?
    A. No
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Avionics Part 2 page 122 or page 1 of 90

  69. Q. What would have to be powered to get Air Data to the SFD?
    A. ESS DC power
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Avionics Part 2 page 122 or page 1 of 90

  70. Q. What is the maximum altitude I can use the APU for electrical power?
    A. The APU alternator can deliver 100% (40 kVA) electrical power on the ground or in flight from sea level to 35,000 ft. You can still use it above 35K, to 45K. If load exceeds 55% descend to 35 or below.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 7 of 74

  71. Q. What causes the “AC” legend of AC/DC RESET switchlight to activate?
    A. A Fault in Main AC or Emergency AC bus, a logic fault within BPCU, or by a relay or component failure (Glitch, Fault, Failure)
    Ref: AFM, 03-04-40, Emergency AC Bus Fault and AC/DC Reset

  72. Q. What would cause 1 or both emergency batteries to come ON automatically?
    A. Any one of the 3 door open switches selected to OPEN causes the Forward E-Batt to come ON and open the MED. Or if < 20 volts on the ESS Busses with the E-Batts ARMED.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Aircraft General page 30 of 50

  73. Q. Describe the purpose of the fifth or Aux TRU?
    A. It serves as a backup to the other TRU’s. When not serving in a backup role, the Aux TRU powers the Aux DC bus which provides 28 VDC power to cabin loads.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 5, 9, 65 of 74

  74. Q. What does the Emergency AC Bus power?
    A. EBHA battery charger, UPS battery charger, H-STAB Channel 1, L & E Ess TRU - VIA RAT, L & R Side Window Heat – VIA RAT, RAT VOLT/FREQ
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 3, 7, 12 of 74

  75. Q. What are the sources of power for the ground service bus?
    A. Right main DC bus, external DC power cart, or right battery.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 5, 6, 8, 11, 23 of 74

  76. Q. What powers the Emergency AC Bus?
    A. Left Main AC or RAT generator.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 3, 23 of 74

  77. Q. What happens on a dark airplane when the GND SVC BUS switch on the Security / Gnd Svc panel is selected to ON?
    A. The right battery powers the ground service bus and the anti-collision beacon illuminates and TSC #5 is powered.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 6 of 74

  78. Q. How many TSC’s can be used to simultaneously control the SSPC’s?
    A. The Secondary Power Distribution System can be accessed from any two of TSC 2 thru 5. Secondary Power is not available on TSC 1
    Ref:

  79. Q. If the Right Essential TRU fails, the Aux TRU will power the Right Essential DC bus. If we have a subsequent failure of the Left Essential TRU, what will occur?
    A. Aux TRU will take over the LH ESS DC bus and the right Ess DC bus will be powered by the BATTS.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Electrical page 9 of 74

  80. Q. If you had to deploy the RAT. What buses can it power?
    A. Emergency AC Bus, Left and Right ESS Buses
    Ref: AFM, 04-04-10, Dual Generator Failure, NOTE

  81. Q. What is temperature range in manual?
    A. 0 to 100 % - Full cold 35 F to full hot 230 F
    Ref: iFlightDECK

  82. Q. Automatic pressurization is available down to what source of power?
    A. Main batteries, CPCS Channel 1
    Ref: AFM, CB Listing: Air Conditioning

  83. Q. During Cockpit Inspection there is a pressurization panel Fault Light illuminated, what does that mean?
    A. A fault has been sensed by the cabin pressure controller, or both channels of the controller have failed.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Pressurization page 6 of 25

  84. Q. What are the restrictions when taking off with a single bleed air system?
    A. Isolation valve closed until 1500 feet AGL or clear of obstacles, if wing anti-ice needed must be single pack.
    Ref: AFM 03-21-20, Bleed Air System Failure - Single

  85. Q. Is there any time I cannot use VNAV?
    A. VNAV operations using QFE altimeter settings are prohibited.
    Ref: AFM, 01-03-10: Types of Airplane Operations Permitted.

  86. Q. When can I not use the Autothrottles?
    A. During single engine approaches. During approach and landing with flaps 10° or flaps 0°.
    Ref: AFM, 01-22-10: Autothrottle

  87. Q. Can you dispatch without the pilot's CCD?
    A. Yes, Both can be inoperative
    Ref: MEL, ATA 34 Navigation, Cursor Control Device

  88. Q. Do you lose any functionality in the cockpit with one CCD inoperative?
    A. No
    Ref: iFlightDECK

  89. Q. Looking into the HUD, how can you tell if the EVS is selected ON and ready for use?
    A. It indicates EVS A, H, or L in the upper left corner
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Avionics HUD System page 27, 28

  90. Q. What are the flap restrictions in icing conditions?
    A. The use of flaps in icing conditions is restricted to takeoff, approach, and landing. If icing conditions exist or may exist during approach and landing, wing anti-ice must be selected on and confirmed to be operating in the normal temperature range prior to flap extension. Extended operations in icing conditions is limited to the Flaps Up configuration. If flight in icing conditions with flaps extended has occurred for more than 10 minutes during takeoff or approach and landing, do not retract flaps below 10 deflection until it is verified that the flap leading edge is clear of ice by one of the following means: 1. Visual inspection of the flap on the ground after landing. 2. Visual inspection of the winglet leading edges while in flight.
    Ref: AFM Limitations 01-30-20 Use of Flaps

  91. Q. As you are taxiing out, you get a blue "FCC 1A Fail (U)" CAS. Can you takeoff?
    A. Yes, you can go with 3 of the 4 channels.
    Ref: MMEL, ATA 27, page 64 of 247 – 27-1

  92. Q. Are there any limitations associated with an amber "Spoiler Panel Fail (U)" CAS message?
    A. Yes, do not exceed 285 KCAS or 0.90M.
    Ref: AFM Limitations 01-03-40, Airspeed Limitations

  93. Q. What will cause an amber "FCS Alternate Mode (U)" CAS message? Can it be recovered?
    A. Less than 2 valid IRS signals, or less than 2 valid ADS sources, or loss of communications from FCC to HSTS. FLT CTRL RESET might get it back.
    Ref: AFM 3A-06-70

  94. Q. What are the limitations associated with flying in a degraded flight control mode?
    A. Do not exceed 285 KCAS or 0.90M, don't fly into known icing conditions, maximum crosswind for landing is 10 knots.
    Ref: AFM Limitations 01-03-40, Airspeed Limitations, AFM Limitations 01-27-20, Degraded Flight Control Law Mode, AFM Limitations 01-02-10, Runway, Slope and Wind Conditions

  95. Q. What’s the purpose of the A/P DISC switch?
    A. It disengages the autopilot, stops runaway trim in all three axes, silences the AP DISC warning, trim speed sync.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH Avionics Section 2 page 193 or 71 of 90, page 11 or 11 of 70

  96. Q. Any other ways to disconnect the AP?
    A. Override the flight controls, select the AP OFF on the guidance panel, use any of the pitch trim switches.
    Ref: iFlightDECK / PTH page

  97. Q. What happens if all four (4) FCC channels are invalid?
    A. The flight control system reverts to the Direct Mode
    Ref:

  98. Q. What’s the function of the FLT CTRL RESET switch?
    A. Used to reset flight control computers and control surface actuators when directed by a checklist. Removes Lockouts for the FCCs.
    Ref: iFlightDECK

  99. Q. When is stall protection not available?
    A. ADS Failure (AOA, Airspeed, etc.), or FCC mode other than Normal, or Flaps position information unavailable, or WAI status miscompare between FCCs.
    Ref: AFM, 3B-19-160, Stall Protect Unavail (U)

  100. Q. What causes the spoilers to stow during landing?
    A. After landing, ground spoilers retract 10 seconds after wheel and air speeds are both below 42 knots, or immediately after either throttle is not at idle, or immediately if either MLG WOW is in air.
    Ref:

  101. Q. When does the Stab return to zero after landing.
    A. 5 seconds after ground spoilers stow, the FCC commands a post-flight BIT of control surface and stab actuators. The stab will return to zero as soon as the post-flight BIT completes.
    Ref:

  102. Q. On a no flap landing why do we turn on the wing anti-ice?
    A. Changes the Flight Control Logic for AOA. Increases the available AOA thus providing a lower approach speed
    Ref: AFM, 03-12-10, Zero Flaps or Partial Flaps Landings

  103. Q. What lights aren’t tested during Annun Test?
    A. APU FIRE light, fire handles, fuel control switches, red light in ELT switch panel, and passenger oxygen light.
    Ref:

  104. Q. When do taxi lights automatically extinguish?
    A. Gear retraction.
    Ref:

  105. Q. What's the quickest way of turning up the SFD lighting?
    A. Press and hold the Menu button for 3 seconds.
    Ref: iFlightDECK

  106. Q. What's the quickest way of turning up TSC lighting?
    A. Press and hold the tumbler for 7 seconds.
    Ref: iFlightDECK

  107. Q. How long does it take to purge the water tanks?
    A. 10 minutes.
    Ref: iFlightDECK

  108. Q. How do I turn OFF the water compressor to service the water system?
    A. Open the water service panel door or Pressing the button on the water level indicator in the baggage compartment next to the water tanks or Turn off the water system on the Galley Touch Screen.
    Ref:

Checkride Strategy

We all have our own strategies for these things. Given the requirements, my weaknesses, and what I am expecting, here are mine.

  • My sim partner and I agreed I would go first. While he is setting up the cockpit I'll program the flight plan.

  • I don't plan on being too elaborate for the initial takeoff briefing, only to mention V2, VSE, the acceleration altitude, and emergency return plans.

  • I've never had problems with steep turns and using HUD symbology in the HUD or PFD makes them easier still. Just keep the dot on the horizon line, roll smoothly into the turn, trim using the stick pitch trim (TSS doesn't trim for more than 1 G), and add just a little thrust. I'll ask for a roll out call at 15° but I tend to roll quicker than that, so I'll wait until 10° to reverse the direction of roll. I don't change the trim or thrust, just hold what I've got. As we approach our original heading I'll removed the added thrust and use the TSS to retrim for 1 G level flight.

  • Stalls are fairly benign since we exit at the first sign. I will be using the HUD since one of the signs can appear in the HUD. Full power is not always needed and in some cases can make things worse. Reduce angle of attack, add power, and get the airplane out of any low speed cues.

  • The nose tracks more quickly during the V1 on this airplane than any I've flown before, and once the nose starts moving it is hard to arrest. I keep my eyes outside during the takeoff roll and move the rudders to keep the nose straight. Once the nose is in the air I shift to the PFD to double check I have the correct rudder and then know I will end up needing all of it. The next task is to keep the speed between V2 and V2+10. Some of the instructors will tell you this is easy on the HUD, where you will have the so-called "staple" with both speeds next to the FPV. I find this too hard to do, since you have fewer roll and heading cues. So I crosscheck the speed and ask for FLCH which is supposed to stay in the correct speed range. Once 1,500' above the runway I ask for VSE and accelerate. Once at VREF+20 ask for the flaps up and accelerate to 200 knots. I will, at that point, trim the rudder.

  • For each single engine approach, the idea is to minimize your workload without violating the restrictions against being coupled below 200 feet (non LPV or ILS), going around with the autopilot, or having the autothrottles connected for a single engine approach. So I have the AP and AT engaged just prior to joining the instrument final, ask for Flaps 10° and then disengaging the AT and centering the rudder trim. Since one of the single engine approaches has to be handflown, I'll disengage the AP prior to the glideslope intercept on the first, which is usually to a missed approach. For the others, I'll leave the AP engaged until 200 feet.

  • At glideslope intercept I like to call for the landing and taxi lights to be killed, announce my intentions to fly to the DA posted on the PFD, and if I have EVS lights to go further to the SA posted on the PFD. This is a good time to say "set missed approach altitude and kill the landing and taxi lights." If and when I see the EVS lights, I'll add to the callout "EVS lights, continuing to 100 feet." If I hear "secondary" and the PM hasn't said go around, I say "landing, lights on please." Otherwise it is "Go around, flaps 20" while pressing TOGA, pushing the thrust levers forward in time with the rudder, and rotating into the flight director. At positive rate, "gear up, set me up for the missed." Clean up is as before, except we skip VSE and go right to 200 KCAS.

  • images

    Photo: Using "Kermit" and the 2 mile ring in Memphis

    Click photo for a larger image

  • For the circle to land at KMEM, I expect either the RNAV 27 or ILS 27 (with or without glideslope), circle to 18R. In either case brief you will be getting down to the Cat C minimums of 940' and once the field is in sight, turn right 45° and time for 45 seconds. If you have to go missed before turning to the landing runway, simply jog back to the left and flight straight out. Otherwise, turn 270° to align. Adjust your MAP display for a 2 nm ring and that will make the ILS or RNAV "feather" 2 nm and give you a target. The ILS has a step down fix at IPEPE which holds you up to 980'. You can ask approach to call it for you or you can use your FMS to circle it on the MAP display. Once the airport is in sight, call it, and turn to offset. You should be able to make out the left and right runways before timing is expired but turn to parallel by heading for the end of the feather on 18R. Since your ASEL is set on the missed approach altitude, you can begin your descent with the FPA button. Roll out on centerline and place the 3° HUD FPA on the end of the runway. This will probably be your "performance landing" so set Autobrakes to HIGH, once down take over and get down to taxi speed as soon as possible.

References

* FlightSafety International iFlightDECK G500-G600

* FlightSafety International Gulfstream G500/G600 Maintenance Training Manual, ATA 21: Air Conditioning, Revision 0.1, January 2018

Gulfstream GVII-G500 Aircraft Operating Manual, Revision 2, February 20, 2019

Gulfstream GVII-G500 Airplane Flight Manual, Revision 1, August 31, 2018

Gulfstream GVII-G500 Production Aircraft Systems, Revision 1, Oct 1, 2018

Gulfstream Symmetry Flight Deck for the G500 Aircraft Pilot's Guide, Honeywell Pub. No. D201110000019--003a, October 29/18

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To answer another frequent question: yes I live in fear of law suits and have reached out for permissions where possible. Gulfstream has been very good about all of this provided I add the note shown below. Let me be clear about this: I think the world of Gulfstream Aerospace. There is no prettier wing in existence than what you see on a GV or G550 and the best cockpit I've ever touched is in my trusty G450.

—Eddie

Revision: 20190603
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